Basic Logic's (BasicLogicIQ) "Christian Zionism Debunked" Refuted: Why Romans 11, Ezekiel 37, and the Fig Tree Prove God Is Not Done With Israel
This is a full response to Basic Logic's Christian Zionism: All Arguments Ranked & Debunked
Basic Logic is an open Neo-Nazi who hates Jews and Israel.
He made an entire video justifying the crimes of Adolf Hitler, and "Aryan" ideology.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CF0sqvpyp7U
Pan-European is a dog whistle for "Aryans".
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CwYzhKZD4Bk
Basic Logic: Bless those who bless you. In the Old Testament, many promises and blessings are given to Israel. And the most frequently cited one is Genesis 12:3, where God tells Abraham that he'll bless those who bless him. The Christian Zionist interprets this as an everlasting covenant with Abraham and his descendants. And therefore, we must all bless modern Israel as his biological descendants. The issue is that even if we interpret the covenant as applying to all of Abraham's biological descendants, Israel was not his only descendant. We're forgetting the Arabs through Ishmael, the ones through Esau, and other smaller groups through Ketura's sons. But it's worse than that because the New Testament tells us exactly who is Abraham's seed. Galatians 3:29, if you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham's seed and heirs according to the promise. And in Romans 9:6, it says, "Not all who are descended from Israel are Israel." The standard is clear. Those who belong to Christ are Israel. Those who don't are not. Christ even said he can raise up seeds of Abraham at will and that those who reject him are the sons not of Abraham but the devil. The same rationale applies for every promise given to Israel throughout the Old Testament.
It is frustrating that Basic Logic has such a high view of himself and carries himself so confidently, yet he knows nothing.
"The Christian Zionist interprets this as an everlasting covenant with Abraham and his descendants. And therefore, we must all bless modern Israel as his biological descendants. The issue is that even if we interpret the covenant as applying to all of Abraham's biological descendants, Israel was not his only descendant. We're forgetting the Arabs through Ishmael, the ones through Esau, and other smaller groups through Ketura's sons."
Basic Logic's Arguendo (For the Sake of Argument) is not actually predicated upon how Christian Zionists view that text.
His entire assumption and theology on it are wrong.
1. Genesis 12:3 was a promise made to Abraham and his seed.
2. Isaac (not Esau), the father of Jews, got the birthright and so the promise.
And the worst of all is that his arguendo isn't even an actual argument that Jews or Christian Zionists make.
We know it passed from Isaac to Jacob because Balaam in Numbers speaks this of Israel.
Numbers 24:9 “He couched, he lay down as a lion, and as a great lion: who shall stir him up? Blessed is he that blesseth thee, and cursed is he that curseth thee.”
Basic Logic has made an argument that no one he is arguing against makes, and has, after defeating the for-the-sake-of-argument that no one believes or teaches, declared victory.
"Galatians 3:29, if you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham's seed and heirs according to the promise. And in Romans 9:6, it says, "Not all who are descended from Israel are Israel." The standard is clear. Those who belong to Christ are Israel. Those who don't are not. Christ even said he can raise up seeds of Abraham at will and that those who reject him are the sons not of Abraham but the devil. The same rationale applies for every promise given to Israel throughout the Old Testament."
I made an entire article on Galatians 3.
Read it.
https://blogs.crossmap.com/stories/how-galatians-3-debunks-replacement-theology-god-is-not-done-with-israel-YTNRqAYDTmSsLz03uBKct
Ignoring Galatians 3, this is a bad argument anyway.
Romans 11:29 explicitly says “For the gifts and calling of God are without repentance.”
What are the gifts? It's not about salvation.
Every single INSTANCE of salvation in the Pauline epistles is a singular pronoun.
Not a singular instance of the plural gift in the Pauline epistles refers to salvation.
Every instance of the singular gift in regard to salvation:
Romans 5:15 But not as the offence, so also is the free GIFT. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the GIFT by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.
Romans 5:16 And not as it was by one that sinned, so is the GIFT: for the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free GIFT is of many offences unto justification.
Romans 5:17 For if by one man’s offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the GIFT of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)
Romans 5:18 Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free GIFT came upon all men unto justification of life.
Romans 6:23 For the wages of sin is death; but the GIFT of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.
2 Corinthians 9:15 Thanks be unto God for his unspeakable GIFT.
Ephesians 2:8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the GIFT of God:
Ephesians 3:7 Whereof I was made a minister, according to the GIFT of the grace of God given unto me by the effectual working of his power.
Hebrews 6:4 (written to Hebrews in the Tribulation) For it is impossible for those who were once enlightened, and have tasted of the heavenly GIFT, and were made partakers of the Holy Ghost,
Every other instance of gift singular, not in regard to salvation:
Romans 1:11 For I long to see you, that I may impart unto you some spiritual gift, to the end ye may be established;
1 Corinthians 1:7 So that ye come behind in no gift; waiting for the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ:
1 Corinthians 13:2 And though I have the gift of prophecy, and understand all mysteries, and all knowledge; and though I have all faith, so that I could remove mountains, and have not charity, I am nothing.
1 Corinthians 7:7 For I would that all men were even as I myself. But every man hath his proper gift of God, one after this manner, and another after that.
2 Corinthians 1:11 Ye also helping together by prayer for us, that for the gift bestowed upon us by the means of many persons thanks may be given by many on our behalf.
2 Corinthians 8:4 Praying us with much intreaty that we would receive the gift, and take upon us the fellowship of the ministering to the saints.
Ephesians 4:7 But unto every one of us is given grace according to the measure of the gift of Christ.
Philippians 4:17 Not because I desire a gift: but I desire fruit that may abound to your account.
1 Timothy 4:14 Neglect not the gift that is in thee, which was given thee by prophecy, with the laying on of the hands of the presbytery.
2 Timothy 1:6 Wherefore I put thee in remembrance that thou stir up the gift of God, which is in thee by the putting on of my hands.
Every instance of gifts plural:
A person who I gave this to thought I meant every single plural instance of gifts was for the Jews. No, but what I do mean is that if gifts is plural and it's not the gift of salvation, then it has to be promises of God. What else did God give Israel from Acts 28 to Romans 11?
Romans 11:29 For the gifts and calling of God are without repentance.
Romans 12:6 Having then gifts differing according to the grace that is given to us, whether prophecy, let us prophesy according to the proportion of faith;
1 Corinthians 12:1 Now concerning spiritual gifts, brethren, I would not have you ignorant.
1 Corinthians 12:4 Now there are diversities of gifts, but the same Spirit.
1 Corinthians 12:9 To another faith by the same Spirit; to another the gifts of healing by the same Spirit;
1 Corinthians 12:28 And God hath set some in the church, first apostles, secondarily prophets, thirdly teachers, after that miracles, then gifts of healings, helps, governments, diversities of tongues.
1 Corinthians 12:30 Have all the gifts of healing? do all speak with tongues? do all interpret?
1 Corinthians 12:31 But covet earnestly the best gifts: and yet shew I unto you a more excellent way.
1 Corinthians 14:1 Follow after charity, and desire spiritual gifts, but rather that ye may prophesy.
1 Corinthians 14:12 Even so ye, forasmuch as ye are zealous of spiritual gifts, seek that ye may excel to the edifying of the church.
Ephesians 4:8 Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men.
Hebrews 2:4 God also bearing them witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?
Hebrews 5:1 For every high priest taken from among men is ordained for men in things pertaining to God, that he may offer both gifts and sacrifices for sins:
Hebrews 8:3 For every high priest is ordained to offer gifts and sacrifices: wherefore it is of necessity that this man have somewhat also to offer.
Hebrews 8:4 For if he were on earth, he should not be a priest, seeing that there are priests that offer gifts according to the law:
Hebrews 9:9 Which was a figure for the time then present, in which were offered both gifts and sacrifices, that could not make him that did the service perfect, as pertaining to the conscience;
Hebrews 11:4 By faith Abel offered unto God a more excellent sacrifice than Cain, by which he obtained witness that he was righteous, God testifying of his gifts: and by it he being dead yet speaketh.
So, what are the gifts of Romans 11 referring to if not referring to the GIFT singular of salvation? The promises of God to Jews.
Romans 9:4 “Who are Israelites; to whom pertaineth the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises;”
And what is the calling referring to? Let's see what Paul's other instances of calling are for.
Romans 11:29 For the gifts and calling of God are without repentance.
1 Corinthians 1:26 For ye see your calling, brethren, how that not many wise men after the flesh, not many mighty, not many noble, are called:
1 Corinthians 7:20 Let every man abide in the same calling wherein he was called.
Ephesians 1:18 The eyes of your understanding being enlightened; that ye may know what is the hope of his calling, and what the riches of the glory of his inheritance in the saints,
Ephesians 4:4 There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling;
Philippians 3:14 I press toward the mark for the prize of the high calling of God in Christ Jesus.
2 Thessalonians 1:11 Wherefore also we pray always for you, that our God would count you worthy of this calling, and fulfil all the good pleasure of his goodness, and the work of faith with power:
2 Timothy 1:9 Who hath saved us, and called us with an holy calling, not according to our works, but according to his own purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the world began,
Hebrews 3:1 Wherefore, holy brethren, partakers of the heavenly calling, consider the Apostle and High Priest of our profession, Christ Jesus;
Calling is an even stronger word.
What God called Jews for, he cannot repent of.
Meaning, it's very hard to say God did change his mind and he has now called Christians to replace Jews.
You can get messed up here if you don't read Romans 11:29.
The promises of Galatians 3:16 cannot contradict 1. Romans 11:29, and it cannot contradict 2. the promises God gave Jews, 3. the calling God did to Jews.
We get two inheritances.
1. A physical promise (Genesis 12:3 & 13:15–16)
Jews get the real estate (Genesis 15); however, Christians get to rule in the 1000-year millennial reign (Romans 8:17).
2. A spiritual inheritance (Genesis 18:18 & 22:18)
The aforementioned inheritance I told you about.
For the rest of the chapter, it's back to singular vs plural.
“And this I say, that the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect.”
Singular promise.
What is that promise? The promise of the Holy Spirit.
Not the promises to the Jews.
The plural and singular are what separate them.
“For if the inheritance be of the law, it is no more of promise: but God gave it to Abraham by promise.”
I already explained this.
“Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.”
Self-explanatory.
“Now a mediator is not a mediator of one, but God is one.”
“Is the law then against the promises of God? God forbid: for if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law.”
Self-explanatory. Galatians 3:16 is applicable.
“But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.”
A good cross reference is:
John 7:38-39
“He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water. (But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)”
Look at my "believeth on" study, also.
It then switches back from the Jewish promises to the singular promise of the Holy Spirit to anyone who believes, and you know what I already told you about with Galatians 3:16.
But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.
Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.
But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster.
For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus.
For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.
There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
You may say, doesn't this contradict that God has a plan for ethnic Israel? How can God have promises for an ethnicity when God said there's no difference between Jew and Greek?
There is a very small number of Jews saved today; the vast majority of Jews are not in Christ, and there is a difference, then, between Jew and Greek.
And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.
Singular promise of the Holy Spirit.
The idea that Christians have replaced Jews is nonsensical.
If Jews are replaced, and replacement theology is true, then we should have plural promises, not singular.
That is how Galatians 3 debunks replacement theology.
I'd like to thank Steve Sturgeon and Dr. Ruckman for their studies on Galatians 3, and the commenter for the ISSL nugget.
BasicLogicIQ: "Prophetic math. Usually I present arguments and then debunk them. But of this one I'm just going to let it speak for itself. In Ezekiel 4, the prophet is made to lie on his side for 430 days total, which dispensationists argue represents 430 years of punishment. Why? Who knows? Israel had already served 70 years in Babylonian captivity. That leaves 360 years left. In Leviticus, God says he'll punish 7 times more for their sins. So, if we multiply 360 years by 7, we get 2520 years. Why didn't the original 70 years get the same treatment? Doesn't matter."
This is a very fringe view in Dispensationalism. To the extent, I never heard of it before replying to this.
C.I. Scofield does not mention the idea that it is a future action in his commentary on Ezekiel 4.
(I get it this is before 1948, but like still C.I. Scofield who popularized Dispensationalism did not teach this.)
"The symbolic actions during the prophet's dumbness were testimonies to the past wickedness and chastisement of the house of Israel (the whole nation), and prophetic of a coming siege. They therefore intermediate between the siege of 2Ki 24:10-16 at which time Ezekiel was carried to Babylon, and the siege of 2Ki 25:1-11 eleven years later." -C.I. Scofield, 1907
But, what is weird is he seems weirdly against the idea that 430 days isn't in the text. Even if you don't agree with the conclusion that it's future (which I don't agree with), it's very much in the text.
Ezekiel 4:1-6
Thou also, son of man, take thee a tile, and lay it before thee, and pourtray upon it the city, even Jerusalem:
And lay siege against it, and build a fort against it, and cast a mount against it; set the camp also against it, and set battering rams against it round about.
Moreover take thou unto thee an iron pan, and set it for a wall of iron between thee and the city: and set thy face against it, and it shall be besieged, and thou shalt lay siege against it. This shall be a sign to the house of Israel.
Lie thou also upon thy left side, and lay the iniquity of the house of Israel upon it: according to the number of the days that thou shalt lie upon it thou shalt bear their iniquity.
For I have laid upon thee the years of their iniquity, according to the number of the days, three hundred and ninety days: so shalt thou bear the iniquity of the house of Israel.
And when thou hast accomplished them, lie again on thy right side, and thou shalt bear the iniquity of the house of Judah forty days: I have appointed thee each day for a year.
Iniquity of the house of Israel + 390
Iniquity of the house of Judah + 40
390 + 40 = 430
430 is also the time spent in Egypt, if I have to throw my hat in the ring what it represents.
Exodus 12:40
“Now the sojourning of the children of Israel, who dwelt in Egypt, was four hundred and thirty years.”
I know the entire point of him mentioning the 430 is to do the calculations, but it's a fringe view.
What is FAR more interesting is why BasicLogicIQ didn't know where the 430 days came from.
John Wesley in his published commentary on the Old Testament in 1765 also held the view that this was representing days.
"Verse 4
Lie thou also upon thy left side, and lay the iniquity of the house of Israel upon it: according to the number of the days that thou shalt lie upon it thou shalt bear their iniquity.
Lay — Take upon thee the representation of their guilt and punishment.
House of Israel — The ten tribes.
The number — By this thou shalt intimate how long I have borne with their sins, and how long they shall bear their punishment.
Verse 5
For I have laid upon thee the years of their iniquity, according to the number of the days, three hundred and ninety days: so shalt thou bear the iniquity of the house of Israel.
I have laid — I have pointed out the number of years wherein apostate Israel sinned against me, and I did bear with them.
Years — These years probably began at Solomon’s falling to idolatry, in the twenty-seventh year of his reign, and ended in the fifth of Zedekiah’s captivity.
Verse 6
And when thou hast accomplished them, lie again on thy right side, and thou shalt bear the iniquity of the house of Judah forty days: I have appointed thee each day for a year.
Accomplished — That is, almost accomplished.
House of Judah — Of the two tribes.
Forty days — Probably from Josiah’s renewing the covenant, until the destruction of the temple, during which time God deferred to punish, expecting whether they would keep their covenant, or retain their idolatries, which latter they did for thirteen years of Josiah’s reign, for eleven of Jehoiakim’s, and eleven of Zedekiah’s reign, and five of his captivity, which amount to just forty years. But all this was done in a vision." - John Wesley, Ezekiel, 1765
The point is, it's a very weird argument to deny the 430 days specifically because it is literally in the text.
How can a person make a video against this view specifically (and I do not even hold it) yet not actually read the Bible verses that it's pertaining to?
If Basic Logic read Ezekiel 4, he'd seen that the dates were in there.
So, why didn't he read Ezekiel 4?
BasicLogicIQ: "Now, if we for some reason assume Cyrus's decree freeing the Israelites in 536 BC as the start point and add 2520 years, we get 1984. Since that date is insignificant, proponents apply what they call prophetic years, which are actually only 360 days long. They get this based on a literal interpretation of Noah's ark, where months are treated as rigid 30-day periods. They argue this was the original design for a year before the flood. Why are we even using that then for post flood times? Not important. Therefore, we can convert 2520 years into 97,200 days. If we add those days to our starting point in 536 BC, we get May 14th, 1948, the very date that modern state of Israel declared independence. Well, actually, we don't. But if you keep tweaking the start date, you can force it to."
You picked an argument that a select few hold and then used it as a polemic against all of Dispensationalism? I get it the video is named all arguments, but again this is a minor view, and he specifically says "which dispensationists" meaning he is trying to frame this as a universal belief in Dispensationalism.
Cyrus Scofield didn't teach this.
Dr. Ruckman, the universally accepted successor of C.I. Scofield didn't teach this.
Again, why didn't he read Ezekiel 4?
BasicLogicIQ: "The dry bones prophecy. In Ezekiel 37, the prophet receives a vision upon which he is ordered to prophesy to a valley of dry bones. The dry bones animate, gain flesh, and become a great army. God explains the vision to Ezekiel, saying that the dry bones are like Israel, dead and without hope. But God will open their graves and bring them back to Israel. Christian Zionists argue this is a clear prophecy about the modern state of Israel. They argue the bones coming back to life is the founding of the nation in 1948 and that the great army is the IDF. Are you serious? Firstly, Ezekiel's prophecy was about the Babylonian exile."
No. Look at Ezekiel.
12Therefore prophesy and say unto them, Thus saith the Lord GOD; Behold, O my people, I will open your graves, and cause you to come up out of your graves, and bring you into the land of Israel.
13And ye shall know that I am the LORD, when I have opened your graves, O my people, and brought you up out of your graves,
14And shall put my spirit in you, and ye shall live, and I shall place you in your own land: then shall ye know that I the LORD have spoken it, and performed it, saith the LORD.
15The word of the LORD came again unto me, saying,
16Moreover, thou son of man, take thee one stick, and write upon it, For Judah, and for the children of Israel his companions: then take another stick, and write upon it, For Joseph, the stick of Ephraim, and for all the house of Israel his companions:
17And join them one to another into one stick; and they shall become one in thine hand.
18And when the children of thy people shall speak unto thee, saying, Wilt thou not shew us what thou meanest by these?
19Say unto them, Thus saith the Lord GOD; Behold, I will take the stick of Joseph, which is in the hand of Ephraim, and the tribes of Israel his fellows, and will put them with him, even with the stick of Judah, and make them one stick, and they shall be one in mine hand.
20And the sticks whereon thou writest shall be in thine hand before their eyes.
21And say unto them, Thus saith the Lord GOD; Behold, I will take the children of Israel from among the heathen, whither they be gone, and will gather them on every side, and bring them into their own land:
22And I will make them one nation in the land upon the mountains of Israel; and one king shall be king to them all: and they shall be no more two nations, neither shall they be divided into two kingdoms any more at all:
23Neither shall they defile themselves any more with their idols, nor with their detestable things, nor with any of their transgressions: but I will save them out of all their dwellingplaces, wherein they have sinned, and will cleanse them: so shall they be my people, and I will be their God.
24And David my servant shall be king over them; and they all shall have one shepherd: they shall also walk in my judgments, and observe my statutes, and do them.
We can verifiably confirm if the prophecy of the dry bones was or wasn't fulfilled.
1. Was the tribes of Joseph/the Northern Tribes restored?
2. Did God unite the Kingdom of Israel into a free kingdom?
3. Has the throne of David been restored?
4. Has Jews never worshipped idols past this point?
5. Will David physically reign over them?
You fail past point 1 as we never see the tribes of Joseph past the Babylonian exile, again, and that isn't even getting me started on Jews never worshiping idols.
Seriously, verifiably false.
"But even if we assume a dual meaning, the prophecy doesn't fit with 1948. In Ezekiel 37:14, it includes a spiritual repentance and new life with people knowing that the Lord had spoken. It also speaks of a messianic kingdom."
Any and all times you make a spiritual application for something, you can say anything you want for it. Literally. Once we ignore the literal meaning of the text, anything goes.
Go and try it with Ezekiel 37, make a spiritual application.
BasicLogicIQ: "Modern Israel does not accept Christ. They are one of the most secular nations in the world and they aren't the kingdom."
When debating someone, you should actually address with what they believe and make counter arguments.
Most classic Dispensationalists will respond to that with Israel/Jews have been blinded.
Romans 11:25-27 “For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in. And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob: For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins.”
There's also a much stronger candidate for a dual meaning of this prophecy. Christ himself. After all, Christ did actually open the graves. He did bring about spiritual repentance and new life. He has a heavenly kingdom. And if we accept the definition of the true Israel as the church, then he created a greater army for Israel than anyone could have ever dreamed of.
"Christ did actually open the graves"
Did the northern tribes come back?
Did Jews stop committing Idolatry?
If Christians ARE THE NEW JEWS, did they also stop committing idolatry?
I like how he says "And if we accept the definition of the true Israel as the church" As if that is not of the biggest premises to accept.
If BasicLogicIQ really wants to say Christians are the New Israel, and that Ezekiel 37 applies spiritually.
Then Christians should not sin and commit idolatry. Yet Paul says they can still do it which is fully against what God promised.
1 Corinthians 10:14 Wherefore, my dearly beloved, flee from idolatry.
Galatians 5:20 Idolatry, witchcraft, hatred, variance, emulations, wrath, strife, seditions, heresies,
Colossians 3:5 Mortify therefore your members which are upon the earth; fornication, uncleanness, inordinate affection, evil concupiscence, and covetousness, which is idolatry:
VS
23Neither shall they defile themselves any more with their idols, nor with their detestable things, nor with any of their transgressions: but I will save them out of all their dwellingplaces, wherein they have sinned, and will cleanse them: so shall they be my people, and I will be their God.
Why did Paul have to say not commit idolatry, if GOD EXPLICITLY PROMISED TO NEVER HAVE HIS PEOPLE COMMIT IDOLATRY AGAIN?
Why are you trying to spiritualize Old Testament promises? You can veritably check what God the Father promises.
BasicLogicIQ: "The fig tree parable. In Matthew 24:32-344, Christ talks about how when a fig tree shows leaves coming out, you know that summer is near. Likewise, when the people of his generation saw the signs, they knew that the fulfillment of prophecy was near. The Christian Zionist makes a few alterations. Instead of the parable being a fulfillment of prophecy, it's instead about the end of the world. And when Christ said this generation will not pass until these things have happened, he actually means the generation of Israel's founding in 1948. Why do they believe this? They don't say. But based on this interpretation, the end times will come before the end of that generation. And in the Bible, generations are sometimes referred to as a 40-year period, a 70-year period, or an 80year period. And as such, they claimed the world would end in 1988, in 2018, or 2028. So if in 2 years we're still here"
This is strawmanning. Dr. Peter S. Ruckman, this is what the universally accepted Successor of C.I. Scofield, who popularized dispensationalism says.
"The first part of the parable, then, is to observe the sign of nationalism and, in particular, the beginning of Israel as one of the nations yet unable to put forth FRUIT that will please God (John 15:1–6). “When his branch is yet tender.” The reader must find some place in history where Israel begins as a nation. This cannot be Exodus 15, 20, or 40, as this is past. It cannot be Joshua 24; Judges 13; 1 Samuel 15; or 2 Samuel 1–3, for this is past. It cannot be the restoration under Ezra, Zerubbabel or Nehemiah, for this is past. It will have to be a second restoration after A.D. 70. This amazing prophecy is found in Isaiah 11:11 and Jeremiah 3:18 and 16:14. It was fulfilled in our generation, 1948, with both amillennials (Strong, etc.) and postmillennials (pope, etc.) watching, and neither believing what was taking place right in front of their spectacles. The fulfillment is rejected in the Southern Baptist “New Hampshire confession.” It is rejected by the Armstrongs (“The World Tomorrow”); it is rejected by the Amplified Version; and it is rejected by 80 percent of professing Christianity today. “Let God be true but every man a liar.” The branch is tender now. “Now learn a parable of the fig tree.” You see, there is no danger of saying that, because if you begin with any system that refuses to believe the Bible literally, you can’t learn it even if it is fulfilled in the headlines of the morning newspaper lying on your front stoop (John 12:37)." - Dr. Peter S. Ruckman, Gospel of Matthew Commentary (The Bible Believer's Commentary Series), Chapter 24
Some have tried to date set with it (and Dr. Ruckman himself said it isn't fixed), I believe it's bad Juju. And, I believe Christ is using generation in a loose sense. I.E you can't apply Genesis to it.
BasicLogicIq: "All Israel will be saved. In Romans 11:25-26, Apostle Paul says, "Israel has experienced a partial hardening until the full number of Gentiles has come in and all Israel will be saved." Dispensationalists use this to argue that Paul is making a clear church Israel distinction. This makes sense on the surface as Paul is clearly referring to a literal Israel in the first part of his sentence. But this is Romans, the same book in which Paul says, "Not all who are descended from Israel are Israel." In places like Romans 9:6, Paul showed his willingness to use a nonliteral Israel as a standin for the church. often in the same sentence as when he was referring to a literal Israel. And this makes sense. After all, he says, "Until the full number of the Gentiles has come in." Come into where? Literal geographic Israel seems kind of small for all those people. Clearly, he means come into the faith. And so, and all Israel will be saved refers to the true Israel, the church. This is further confirmed by the olive tree metaphor he uses earlier in the chapter where he describes non-believing Hebrews as having been removed from the tree, the true Israel, and Gentiles as having been grafted onto it. One continuous true Israel, an expanding covenant that includes all who believe Christ that is for all people, not just some. The Zionist argument goes into flaw here. Israel still exists. Membership is just determined by faith rather than blood, which is truthfully how it's always been, even in the Old Testament. I did try to find somewhere in the New Testament that treats Israel as a spiritually distinct entity from the church, but the only passage I found was Revelation 3:9 on screen now. And I seriously doubt dispensationalists intend on preaching that one. Regardless, that concludes the tier list."
Where to begin?
1. This is illogical if you read the text, yes there are spiritual Jews (Romans 9:6) but Romans 11:25-32 is illogical if you read it with the idea it is spiritual
2. "until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in." is a call back to ACTS 28. Acts 28:28 “Be it known therefore unto you, that the salvation of God is sent unto the Gentiles, and that they will hear it.” If you read your Bible, you will understand where it comes from.
3. He does an anti-semitic Jew Hating Dog whistle at the end.
The Synagogue of Satan are replacement theologians. Look at my previous articles.
https://blogs.crossmap.com/stories/why-the-synagogue-of-satan-is-not-ashkenazi-jews-replacement-theology-debunked-eJAHC7fvz_qSL_ekSuOYQ
But, let's assume BasicLogicIQ for the sake of argument is right. Israel is Christians, let's read Romans 11 with those lens.
Romans 11:25–32
“For I would not, brethren (Christian), that ye (Christian) should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye (Christian) should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel (Jews/Israel), until the fulness of the Gentiles (Christian) be come in. And so all Israel (Christian) shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob (Christian): For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their (Christian) sins. As concerning the gospel, they (Christian) are enemies for your (Christian) sakes: but as touching the election, they (Christian) are beloved for the fathers’ sakes. For the gifts and calling of God are without repentance. For as ye (Christian) in times past have not believed God, yet have now obtained mercy through their (Christian) unbelief: Even so have these (Christian) also now not believed, that through your (Christian) mercy they (Christian) also may obtain mercy. For God hath concluded them (Christian) all in unbelief, that he might have mercy upon all. (Also Christian)”
I am so glad Paul wrote about the blindness in part that happened to Israel, so we Christians aren't wise in our own conceits! And that blindness of Israel will be until the fulness of the Christians, and every Christian shall be saved, as Jesus will turn away ungodliness from Christians, as that's his covenant to take away their Christian sins.
Christians may be our enemies for our christian sakes, but christians are beloved for the sake of their forefathers.
So, we christians should love christians as God can't repent of his gifts and callings to Christians.
And we christians obtained mercy through those christians unbelief, and these Christians haven't believed, so we christians may obtain mercy, and those christians may obtain mercy
And God concluded every Christian in unbelief that he might have mercy on us Christians!
Hallelujah!
Hey, so speaking of that, I was thinking about Israel being Christians and it made me realize Romans 11:7 What then? Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for; but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded
I sure hope BasicLogicIQ can explain why God blinded Christians. Or does Paul only refer to ethnic Israel (who BasicLogicIQ says is replaced with Christians) as Israel, despite, oh, I don't know, Christians according to BasicLogicIQ fully replacing them? How come that is so?
It's almost as if, while Christians are spiritually Israel, God still hasn't gotten rid of the promises and calling He made to the physical blood descendants of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob.
So, God still distinguishes between Christians and Jews (Israel) in Romans 11. Pretty good argument for Dispensationalism.
Sources:
BasicLogicIQ - Christian Zionism: All Arguments Ranked & Debunked
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_6chSqUVc3A
https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/eng/srn/ezekiel-4.html
https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/eng/wen/ezekiel-4.html
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